Truth vs. Tradition....Sophomore research paper

Truth vs. Tradition
By Keturah May
By what standard can the text of the “Judeo-Christian Bible” be judged to determine whether it has been changed (“corrupted”), and what impact might this determination have on modern Christian beliefs?
The Judeo-Christian Bible is composed of many books. In the Old Testament there are 39 books, the very broad topics of which are the creation of earth and mankind, the giving of the law, the history of the Hebrews, and many praise songs, poems, and stories. This section of the Bible was originally written in Paleo-Hebrew and later translated into Modern Hebrew, then into English. In the New Testament there are 27 books starting with the four gospels of the Messiah, followed by books about the early believers, most being letters written to churches encouraging or judging them according to what Messiah had taught and (contrary to mainstream Christian beliefs) what the “Old Testament” laws required. This “New Testament” was (I believe) originally written in Hebrew as well, but I do not yet have proof of this. The Christian Bibles we have today are translated from the Greek. Though the translators clearly state in the preface that they only did the best they could, most Christians have never read the preface of their Bible. If they do, it doesn’t seem to faze them that it could have little errors here and there which could change the meaning of a passage completely. One little word change and you could justify your sin…could they have altered it on purpose? And if not, could they have perfectly translated it into English from a language with such different thought patterns?
The Hebrews were commanded to offer a sin offering according to what they had done. Christians believe that since “Jesus” died on the cross, instead of just atoning for a little while, he forgives and forgets your sins if you ask him to and strive not to live in your sin any longer. This salvation through “Jesus” is also believed to have saved us from the law, the law that his Father put into effect, (That is where I disagree).
If it was found that the English translations of the Bible were not inerrant, yet some truth could still be found in them, we could disprove the false holy days (“holidays”) and reinstate God’s appointed feasts, which by the way map out the Messiah’s entire life and purpose. God made every detail match his plan perfectly. When Messiah came he got rid of the curse that was attached to the law, but not the law itself. Those who were called to obey the law fell short of it and sinned, and the punishment for sin is death. We now have a conscience; he says that even if you hate someone you have already committed murder in your heart. That’s the difference between the old and the new. It’s a heart issue, though it seems to be an easy way out He has essentially raised the bar making His laws pertain even to your thoughts.
On the other hand there is a group of believers, who are often labeled “Judaizer” or “Messianic” that believe there are some errors in the modern Bible because it is simply impossible to perfectly translate Hebrew or Greek into English. However, these same believers agree that the original scriptures that were written down were the infallible word of God through the people who wrote it down.
The church bases its doctrines mostly on the New Testament (Matthew through Revelation). Though their Bibles have both the Old and the New Testaments, they use the old as analogies and the history of God, not so much for a basis of their beliefs.
Which is right? Let’s take a closer look:
This verse is sometimes used to back up the belief of infallibility: For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. (Matthew 5:18 KJV)
1. “…Till heaven and earth pass…” This implies that heaven and earth have not yet passed, since earth is obviously still here (well, last time I checked).
2. “…One jot or one tittle…” This is saying that nothing, not even the smallest “jot or tittle” in Hebrew (yod or kof). It goes to show you how specific God really is.
3. “…Shall no wise pass from the law…” Wait! From the law? But didn’t Jesus do away with that old thing? No!!! And as it says, “shall no wise pass”, this means it will not pass, and it’s forever.
4. “…Till all be fulfilled.” Obviously all is not yet fulfilled. Please correct me if I’m wrong, but I am trying to help people to think and to question things they never dared to question before. Now what is this saying? Until heaven and earth pass away all of God’s commands are still valid until He says specifically otherwise: What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it. (Deuteronomy 12:32). Proverbs confirms it saying: Every word of God [is] pure: he [is] a shield unto them that put their trust in him. Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar. (Proverbs 30:5-6) What a coincidence it would be if this were the one and only command in the whole Bible never to be disobeyed. Does that really make sense?
There is no evidence supporting an inerrant God-breathed version of the scriptures in every language. We wouldn’t need so many English versions if the translators had made it inerrant the first time, just one would have been enough.
In the article “Grace vs. Works” the author says: Those who truly repent, are baptized, and then receive the gift of the Holy Spirit will strive to obey God. The Holy Spirit is not passive within you, but it will flow out in righteous works if you allow it to. (Snow)
The “works” are an outflow of a grateful heart; when you receive a gift you want to bless the giver. You don’t consider it being under the law when you love your neighbor by thanking them. Why then would you consider it such when it pertains to the Maker of the Universe?
In this article the anonymous author uses this verse to show that our translations are not infallible:
Hebrews 4:7 (KJV) “Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear his voice, harden not your hearts. 8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.”
Again, the context reveals that this scripture is referring to Joshua, the son of Nun and not the Messiah. All other translations put “Joshua” here. Why then is it translated ‘Jesus’? The answer lies in the Greek/Latin corruption of the Messiah’s original Hebrew name. (From article “Yahushua is the true name of the Messiah”)
This same author has also found some interesting references relating to the name of Joshua and Jesus:
Encyclopedia Americana: “Jesus Christ— …Although Matthew (1:21) interprets the name originally Joshua, that is, ‘Yahweh is Salvation,’ and finds it specially appropriate for Jesus of Nazareth, it was a common one at that time.” (Vol.16, p. 41)
A dictionary of the Bible, by James Hastings
“Jesus — The Greek form of the name Joshua or Jeshua. Jeshua —- Yahweh is Salvation or Yahweh is opulence.”
(From article “Yahushua is the true name of the messiah”)
The censorship of information in the church actually promotes disobedience to the law, because they think that the majority of the law has been done away with.
This verse shows you plainly that they didn’t dread the law…they loved and delighted in it:
Give me understanding, and I shall keep thy law; yea, I shall observe it with [my] whole heart. Make me to go in the path of thy commandments; for therein do I delight. (Psalms 119:34-35 KJV)
The principles some enforce are those of made up traditions, such as their “holidays”. When a fellow “Christian” hears that you no longer celebrate Christmas or Easter, they automatically act as though you’ve lost your salvation! Why is this?
In this article the author says:
Deut. 12:32 “Whatever I command you, be careful to observe it; you shall not add to it nor take away from it.”
Both Christmas and Easter take pagan festivals and traditions and apply them to the worship of Yahweh. This is clearly condemned here. Would it be right to take a satanic holiday that Satanists have invented and then incorporate that holiday into the worship of Yahweh? Surely no. (“Should We Celebrate Christmas?”)
This is only confirming the fact that the “holidays” we keep are not of God and are in fact despised by Him. Consider this verse: Thus saith the LORD, Learn not the way of the heathen, and be not dismayed at the signs of heaven; for the heathen are dismayed at them. For the customs of the people [are] vain: for [one] cutteth a tree out of the forest, the work of the hands of the workman, with the axe. They deck it with silver and with gold; they fasten it with nails and with hammers, that it move not. They [are] upright as the palm tree, but speak not: they must needs be borne, because they cannot go. Be not afraid of them; for they cannot do evil, neither also [is it] in them to do good. (Jeremiah 10:2-5 KJV)
Ask yourself, what Christian holiday popped into your head as you read this verse? Is it just by chance that it describes the day, and the hearts of those who celebrate this day, so literally?
When realizing that the Bible may have some error in the translation we come across issues that are usually explained away, such as the matter of clean and unclean animals. Food doesn’t come in contact with your heart, but only passes through the stomach and then comes out again. (By saying this, he showed that every kind of food is acceptable.) (Mark 7:19 NLT)
Notice the parenthesis, why is this here? Wasn’t He talking about unwashed hands? The context doesn’t support Him declaring such an extreme contradiction to what His Father has commanded. If he had declared all food clean, obviously the disciples would know that unclean meat wasn’t considered food. Look now at the same verse in the King James Version: Because it entereth not into his heart, but into the belly, and goeth out into the draught, purging all meats? (Mark 7:19 KJV) What a difference in wording, he’s talking about the body’s natural process of clearing out your food. The same word used for purging can also be translated as cleansed or clean. Did they just add this in to keep you from questioning the matter of clean and unclean? After all it was not there originally, if this is the infallible word of God then why are they expounding on it?
In the article “Law vs. Grace: Is there a Conflict?” Pastor Need says:
’UNDER GRACE, NOT LAW’ must logically say that choices by individuals or nations have neither good nor bad consequences according to the Word of God, which is totally contrary to Rom 2. The Lord knew false teachers would abound; therefore, He warns against being deceived into thinking that choices do not have consequences before God according to His established rules of life, i.e. Rom 13:8-14.
Additionally, the enemy’s perversion of “UNDER GRACE, NOT LAW” logically means that Christ, the Word of God, militated against God’s law. Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill, Mat 5:17. (Pastor Ovid Need)
When a person decides to go by biblical dietary laws, why is it that people think this is wrong, what’s wrong with obedience? Maybe it’s causing conviction, or maybe they feel “judged”. When God clearly states: And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, that as ye have heard it from the beginning, ye should walk in it. (1 John 1:6 KJV) Why then would fellow believers criticize you for walking in it? The church (when I say the “Church” or “Christians” I usually only mean the majority thereof) enforces rules that God didn’t even ordain, putting you down for the obedience while they glorify the disobedience of others, even the Ten Commandments (while they impress that it’s still active). To the public this means that the church (in general) has deceived them, as well as believers, into obeying mere traditions that God never ordained and no one in the Bible had ever heard of. This means, for the “Messianic” community, that fellow believers persecute them and unless they have found a good congregation, they have nowhere to turn for fellowship with others who understand their convictions.
These things are hard to sift through, finding truth in contrast to the traditions, but we must. If a Christian asked a Jew why they didn’t believe in “Jesus” what would that Jew say? The very sound of the word makes them cringe! Why then do these Christians say they believe in a Jewish Messiah, when He has a Greek name, and He is remembered through pagan festivals and traditions? The Bible says that we are to make the Hebrews jealous, ha! Most people would appall them rather than provoke them to jealousy. By using traditions they completely destroy any Hebrew origin. When they try to witness to the Jews first as we are told to, will they listen? Will they jump at the idea to celebrate a pagan festival in honor of their Messiah? I think not.
If you find any errant information or misprints in this research paper then I suppose it’s not infallible either, therefore I can clearly relate to the Bible translators (who were also in fact human).
Works Cited:
Anonymous. “Should We Celebrate Christmas?” http://eliyah.com/paganexp.html>.
Anonymous. “Yahushua is the true name of the Messiah.” http://www.eliyah.com/thescriptures/>. This article used these sources: Encyclopedia Americana; The Acts of the Apostles, byJackson andLake; A dictionary of the Bible, by James Hastings; Catholic Encyclopedia.Need, Ovid. “Law vs. Grace is there a Conflict?” http://www.biblicalexaminer.org/gracelaw.htm>.
Snow, Eric V. “Grace Vs. Works” http://www.reflecthisglory.org/study/gracevswks.htm\>.
The Bible > Verses Quoted: Matthew 5:18; Proverbs 30:5-6; Deuteronomy 12:32; Hebrews 4:7; Deuteronomy 12:32; Jeremiah 10:2-5; Mark 7:19 (KJV & NLT); Matthew 5:17; 1 John 1:6; Psalms 119:34-35